According to most translations of John 9:2-4, a man was born blind so that God’s works could be revealed in him. For Jesus (or God through Jesus) healed him of his blindness. For example here is how the NKJV reads:
2 And His disciples asked Him, saying, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?”
3 Jesus answered, "Neither this man nor his parents sinned, but that the works of God should be revealed in him.
4 "I must work the works of Him who sent Me while it is day; the night is coming when no one can work.
Does this seem reasonable? That God would cause this man to be born blind, to endure blindness throughout his childhood and part of his adulthood, just in order to heal him and receive glory for it? Or do we just dismiss this to say, “We don’t understand God’s ways with our ‘human’ reasoning” or “God works in mysterious ways His wonders to perform” or “We can’t expect God to do things the way WE think is best. He does what He wants.”
None of these “answers” really answer anything. This is a moral problem, and God is the most moral being in the universe! God is LOVE. Would the God of love do such a thing?
Before ascribing such an act to God, we should first examine the text carefully, and see whether it is indeed translated correctly. As most of you know, Hellenistic Greek (the form of Greek used from 300 B.C. to 300 A.D.) was written all in capitals, with no spaces between words, and no punctuation other than a short line over some words to indicated that they were abbreviations.
Here is a way to punctuate the passage in such a way as to give an entirely different meaning to it:
*2 And His disciples asked HIm, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?”
3,4 Jesus answered, "Neither this man NOR his parents sinned. But in order that the works of God might be revealed in him, it is necessary to work the works of Him who sent Me, while it is day; night is coming when no one can work.*