ONLY in terms of how we ‘moderns’ have come to use/apply the word… however, willingly or unwillingly many a female has engaged in the practice of anal sex i.e., <ἀρσενοκοίταις> – that in itself in terms of “committed heterosexual” relationships raises interesting implications in terms of what is considered “kosher” in terms of THAT relationship, as such, does anyone have the right to prescribe what is mutually acceptable between a “committed heterosexual” couple?
IF then a ‘blind eye’ be turned in this regard (because private matters are NO one else’s business) where does one feel obliged to impose or impinge one’s personal preferences contrariwise upon “committed homosexual” relationships where the same <ἀρσενοκοίταις> might likewise be practiced? Non-hypocritical consistency folks!
Now to two clarifying points:
1) The ‘Sin of Sodom’ was grievous and gross inhospitality – of which <ἀρσενοκοίταις> was a major factor, BUT again, this practice of <ἀρσενοκοίταις> was one of dominance and degradation… a COMMON practice of ancient (and not so ancient) times against one’s considered enemies. Israel was called to be far and above this heinous practice or aggression; and “aggression” is the context of Gen 19.
**2) **Further to this… in Paul’s day the ban on <ἀρσενοκοίταις> was linked NOT to apparent “committed S/S relationships” (such as is popularly viewed today was not even in the picture) BUT to “idolatry” – which was public fair in pagan Corinth where many a male prostitute (quite apart from the females) engaged in said activities RELATIVE TO pagan temple worship; thus to be engaged in such <ἀρσενοκοίταις> was viewed (as it was under the OC, of which Israel at time in rancid rebellion partook) as being joined to Belial (2Cor 6:15-16) etc.