The Evangelical Universalist Forum

Show me one verse Jesus Taught Universalism

Will someone please show me one verse in the Gospels where Jesus taught Universalism? All I ask is one verse.

I gave you one in another thread. You didn’t like it, but I’m fond of it, so I’ll give it again.

Jhn 12:32 “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.”

Sonia :sunglasses:

Sonia.

Again, John 12:32 does not teach Universalism. No one can come to Jesus unless the FATHER draws him.(John 6:44;65) How does the Father draw sinners? By the death, burial, resurrection of Jesus on the cross in John 12:32. How are they saved? By grace through faith in the death, burial, resurrection of Jesus in John 12:32. The act itself made a legal way for all men to be redeemed, but man must put his faith in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus to be redeemed.

Since the disciples and apostles Paul know more concerning what Jesus said than any of us, let me repeat what Paul wrote concerning those words of Jesus.

So, John 12:30-32 'Jesus said, “This voice was for your benefit, not mine. Now is the time for judgment on this world; now the prince of this world will be driven out. But I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself.”

The word ‘draw’ in greek says, “helkuo” in a future tense, to literally to draw, drag off forcefully.

**Romans 5:15-17
**But the gift is not like the trespass. For if the all died by the trespass of the one man, how much more did God’s grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to all men! Again, the gift of God is not like the result of the one man’s sin: The judgment followed one sin and brought condemnation, but the gift followed many trespasses and brought justification. For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive God’s abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ.

2 Corinthians 5:14
For Christ’s love compels us, because we are convinced that one died for all, and therefore all died.

Romans 5:6-11
You see, at just the right time, when we were still powerless, Christ died for the ungodly. Very rarely will anyone die for a righteous man, though for a good man someone might possibly dare to die. But God demonstrates his own love for us in this: While we were still sinners, Christ died for us. Since we have now been justified by his blood, how much more shall we be saved from God’s wrath through him! For if, when we were God’s enemies, we were reconciled to him through the death of his Son, how much more, having been reconciled, shall we be saved through his life! Not only is this so, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received reconciliation.

Jesus didn’t save the righteous, he saved the powerless, ungodly sinners. So, who do you think the powerless, ungodly sinners encompasses? Now you have no excuse any more BA, you now know what Jesus was talking about when He said, “This voice was for your benefit, not mine. Now is the time for judgment on this world; now the prince of this world will be driven out. But I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself.”

And the word used for ‘draw’ has more the emphasis of ‘dragged’. It is the same word used when the disciples were told by Jesus where to cast their nets and they could hardly ‘draw/drag’ the net over the side it was so full of fish.

BA, you are giving your own opinion there, and refusing to recieve the plain words of our Lord and Saviour. Perhaps you have been biased by your preconcieved ideas of the truth and are not able to receive the plain truth of the Word.

Are you not aware that Jesus does the things his Father does? Does it not say that all things have been given to Him? Have not all things been made for Him?

Actually, I’m thinking your reasoning here is convoluted and somewhat incorrect. If salvation is by faith, what does ‘legality’ have to do with it? Law and faith are different systems. Hebrews teaches us that faith came first, law was added later for a purpose (you must know what that is,right?) But the righteousness of God by faith is apart from the law–not a loophole in the law. In Christ we die to the law and are made alive in the better promise that was given to Abraham.

Sonia

Hey Sonia.

You said: Actually, I’m thinking your reasoning here is convoluted and somewhat incorrect. If salvation is by faith, what does ‘legality’ have to do with it? Law and faith are different systems. Hebrews teaches us that faith came first, law was added later for a purpose (you must know what that is,right?) But the righteousness of God by faith is apart from the law–not a loophole in the law. In Christ we die to the law and are made alive in the better promise that was given to Abraham.

Born Again: What I mean by legal is that God had to figure out a way to redeem mankind from Satan without violating His word. Adam gave Satan dominion over man when he sinned against God…he gave Satan the power over sin and death. So, God made a way for mankind to be redeemed back to God’s original intent for man legally without just taking it from Satan anyway He wanted to.

Salvation is by grace through faith. ( Eph 2:8-9)

’ and that not of yourselves lest any man should boast’

BornAgain,

Why limit the discussion to Jesus?

Tom

Hey Tom.

Because for Universalism to be true Jesus must of taught it somewhere in the Gospels. This is very important news for Jesus not to talk about at least one time. If you are saying the glorious gospel is that everyone gets to go to heaven… that everyone will be saved…then I’m saying show me where Jesus teaches it. If Jesus commands all believers to preach this gospel of universalism…why didn’t He preach it? Hmmmmm.

Of course Jesus only came to the lost sheep of Israel and so therefore never preached the salvation of the gentiles in that case.

JeffA.

Jesus does speak of other sheep which are not of this fold in John 10:16 which will become one flock with one shepherd. The two flocks are the Old Testament Jewish believers and the New Testament Gentile and Jewish believers.

and he also says ‘If I be lifted up from the earth I will drag all men to me…’ so that’s 1 - 1

on what other scriptures do you base your assertion that the other sheep are the gentiles?

Jeffa.

Ok. I have already addressed that scripture many times. Go look for it on the other threads.

but you never answer any of my questions concerning the meaning of aionian, or the jubilee or the passage in Romans I quoted about the creation being subject to futility not willingly but by God and how the whole of creation is groaning to be set free into the glorious liberty of the sons of God, or about the prophetic meaning of Israel’s 3 feasts etc…

on these - silence.

also if you stopped creating multiple threads about the same subject (or just threads all over the place - but none in the negative section strangely) perhaps finding your so-called addressing of subjects would be easier.

Jeffa.

Cant respond to you all you posts. Sorry. BTW, How can one be an Agnostic and have faith in Jesus for your eternal salvation? Isn’t that an oxymoron? Is not the very definition of an agnostic…someone who is doubtful or noncommittal about something ?

I am not a Christian - but Universal Salvation makes scripture hang together as a whole better than any other doctrine I have ever come across.

and who are you calling a moron (oxy or not) :smiley:

No you’re too busy starting threads to answer difficult questions.