Conditional futurism insists that end-time judgments are subject to conditions. You could see more about that in my signatures link. My discussion about the duration of “eternal life” and “eternal punishment” is tangent but important to conditional futurism. Likewise, the punishments in Rev. 14:11 and 20:10 are deserved, which might imply finite duration because the respective sins were finite in duration, while nothing suggests that the life of the creator is finite. Also, biblical evidence of wicked dead possibly accepting salvation supports that eternal punishment could be finite in duration.
It might not have been stated in my post, but I was thinking of the question raised in the OP (which was how these phrases could be used of the duration of God’s life, when similar phrases are used of punishment in Revelations.)
I’ve noticed from some of your posts that you’ve studied Patristics, and I know several of the Greek Fathers believed in UR.
Do you know if any of them ever commented on this question (or the phrases under discussion here on this topic heading)?
A primary preposition; to or into (indicating the point reached or entered), of place, time, or (figuratively) purpose (result, etc.); also in adverbial phrases
1519 eis (a preposition) – properly, into (unto) – literally, “motion into which” implying penetration (“unto,” “union”) to a particular purpose or result.
There are those who claim the phrase “ages of the ages” refers to ages tumbling upon ages, one after another, endlessly. Hence the common translation for “ever and ever” (e.g. Rev.20:10 that speaks of torment). Literally, though, the Greek says “ages of the ages”.
In response to this i am wondering about the validity of an argument that assumes that to be true, but states that the word EIS can mean “into”, and if one is tormented “into” a period of age after age after age that goes on forever, that does not require that the torment last “for” the entire duration of all those ages, but only “into” the first age of such a succession. Therefore, apart from contxtual considerations, the torment is of an indefinite duration.
Does that make sense?
I suppose this argument could apply not only to passages that speak of torment and “ages of the ages” (e.g. Rev.20:10), but also to those such as Matthew 25:46, that they shall go “into” aionion/eternal punishment, that is a period of punishment that has age tumbling upon age endlessly.
Does anybody understand this, I found it in a Catholic book about liturgy:
[For the eons of eons,] this literal translation from the Greek corresponds with the Latin “in saecula saeculorum” [into ages of ages]. Thereby is not meant the “eternity” (Greek aidiotêtos, Latin aeternitas) as infinite, unfading time that only applies to the triune God Himself; but the sum of all finite and fading periods of time. The translation from “eternity to eternity” [the idiomatic German equivalent of the English “forever and ever”] or in “all eternity” is at least misleading. Theologically more of relevance is, that by this use of “eternity”, it’s no longer possible to conceive that God’s “eternity” is of different kind then the “fullness of times”, given as gift to the creatures.
Augustine back in his days admitted that he did not know what the phrase means.
That’s an interesting quote & distinction between “infinite, fading time” and “finite and fading periods of time”.
Scripturally speaking it is true that God existed before He created the eons (Heb.1:2; 1 Cor.2:7). So He could be understood as infinite in time past whereas the times of the eons (times eonian, Titus 1:2; 2 Tim.1:9) are not, but had a beginning.
Some also take the position that the eonian times have an end (based on, for example, Heb.9:26; 1 Cor.10:11), which seems that it may agree with your quote. Following are some sites that elaborate on, give charts & a concordance re that viewpoint: