The Evangelical Universalist Forum

Can a Non-Believer Live a Moral Life?

“Total Depravity advocates” are also “fallible fallen errant humans” who “base their belief” on their own INTERPRETATION of “the God-inspired Scriptures.”

So well put. When everything finally ends,… God will let us know - what was a “correct” and “incorrect”, interpretation of scripture. For now, I say pick something that’s either popular or “resonates with you” - and run with it. :laughing:

But - for someone who “apparently” doesn’t believe in total depravity… He or she, is going out of their way - to “sell” it. :laughing:

As I see it, this is the very essence of salvation—to be delivered from our wrongdoing:
As the angel said to Joseph:

Now I know that “His people” may at that time have directly referred to Israel. However, Jesus did save many Israelites of the day from their sins. But “His people” soon included Gentiles who entrusted themselves to Him, also, since:

So everyone who “believes” (that is entrusts himself to Jesus), everyone who “calls upon Him” becomes on of “His people.”

Each of them is in the process of being saved or delivered from their SIN (not merely delivered from hell as so many believe). This is a life-long process, a process in which the non-Christian is uninvolved. The latter can do various works of righteousness from time to time, by his own choice.
The Christian can appropriate by faith the enabling grace of God (made available by Christ’s sacrificial death and resurrection). Thus the apostle Paul writes to Titus 2:11-15

Notice Paul wrote that:

  1. The grace of God has appeared for the salvation of ALL people.
  2. That grace TRAINS us to renounce impiety and worldly passions.
  3. That grace TRAINS us to live sensible, righteous, and pious lives in the present age.
  4. Jesus gave Himself to redeem us from all lawlessness.
  5. Jesus gave Himself to purify for Himself a people of His own who are ZEALOUS for good works.

If these could come about through self-effort and choice alone without being trained by the enabling grace of God, then Jesus’ death would have been unnecessary. I cannot explain why Jesus’ death provides this enabling grace, but Paul states unequivocally that it does.

:smiley: Good one, Don!

I gave the Calvinist Got Questions site response - via another forum thread:

Should a Christian have hobbies?

Let’s examine a sentence, on what they say:

Now I like to watch Zombie, Science Fiction, superhero and horror, TV shows and movies. But I also talk part in an Anglican, conservative charismatic church. And watch Christian TV shows, like the Roman Catholic EWTN station, or TV evangelist Joel Osteen. I would say I am in balance, between hobbies and Christian activities.

Mk 9:41 says they do the deed “in My name”, that is, in Jesus name. In Phil.2:9-11 that is associated with salvation, therefore belief, not unbelief.

Yes, but Sola Scriptura advocates are going to the Source, not blindly trusting pontiffs or others who may not even be using Scripture to arrive at their conclusions. Who relies on Scripture more, your average Calvinist or your average Catholic?

Bollox & blasphemy from the link above:

Nonsense. One can be fully human without being a sinner, depraved or fallen. Before the fall Adam was none of those. So Christ could be fully human like Adam was before the fall. In fact in Scripture Christ is callled the last Adam (1 Cor.15:45) & the second man. Those in Christ are called a “new creation”.

Depravity is not part of the God created human nature, but like an infection which has invaded it, like when a person with the flu has been invaded by germs. Depravity affects the human mind, emotion, will, etc.

Also, Christ could not be the Mediator & a pataker of the fallen human nature. He had to be a spotless Lamb. See:

carm.org/did-jesus-have-sin-nat … ians-teach

Furthermore, if Christ had to be the same as humans, all of whom have sinned & come short of the glory of God (Rom.3:23), then He would have been required to be a sinner. But Christ was no sinner & to suggest otherwise is blasphemy.

Wrong again. He was made “like” fallen humans, not exactly the same:

“ὁμοιωθῆναι] is not: “to be made the same or equal” (Bleek, de Wette, Ebrard, Bisping, Delitzsch, Riehm, Lehrbegr. des Hebräerbr. p. 33; Alford, Maier, Moll, Kurtz, al.), but expresses, as always, the notion of resemblance. Christ was in all things similar to men, His brethren, inasmuch as He had assumed a truly human nature; He was distinguished from them, however, by His absolute sinlessness. Comp. Hebrews 4:15.” biblehub.com/commentaries/hebrews/2-17.htm

“The emphasis in Hebrews is on Jesus’ “likeness in every way” to humans, that is, his full humanity as opposed to an angelic nature, which could not suffer (2:14-16)” (Mounce’s Complete Expository Dictionary of Old & NT Words", 2006, p.410).

Heb.2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. 16 For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. 17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. 18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.

Christ’s brethren were not made exactly the same as Him. They were not born of a virgin. They were not conceived as Christ was, whose Father was God, but concieved via the sperm of fallen sinful human fathers.

biblehub.com/greek/3666.htm
blueletterbible.org/lang/le … ongs=g3666

That is the same error made earlier, confusing being “like” with being the “exact same way”. See:

biblehub.com/greek/3665.htm

New American Standard Bible
For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.
King James Bible
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
American Standard Version
For we have not a high priest that cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but one that hath been in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Douay-Rheims Bible
For we have not a high priest, who can not have compassion on our infirmities: but one tempted in all things like as we are, without sin.
Darby Bible Translation
For we have not a high priest not able to sympathise with our infirmities, but tempted in all things in like manner, sin apart.
English Revised Version
For we have not a high priest that cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but one that hath been in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

Also Jesus temptations did not originate from being dragged away by personaly owned lusts (evil passionate desires) enticing from within (Js.1:14), but from Satan outside of Him (Matthew 4:1-11).

Wrong again. Adam was tempted without having a fallen human nature. And that claim that Christ had a fallen human nature is blasphemy and a heresy taught by Christadelphians:

carm.org/did-jesus-have-sin-nat … ians-teach
epm.org/blog/2013/Aug/26/jesus-sin-nature

Origen, Davo is not “wrong” about all of these matters:

Philippians 2:

Prior to His incarnation, Jesus was IN THE FORM OF GOD. Do you think that means He wasn’t truly divine, but only in the FORM of God?
However, He did not “grasp” or hold onto His divinity, but EMPTIED HIMSELF. Yes, He emptied Himself of all his divine attributes. While He lived on this earth He was FULLY human. He could do no miracles. Every miracle attributed to Him was performed by the Father THROUGH Him.

While the Son of God lived on the earth as a man, He was NOT “fully God” and “fully man” as so many affirm. Rather He was FULLY HUMAN, and had no supernatural powers at all apart from the indwelling presence of His Father. Thus as a complete human being, He was the example of what a human being can do when in total relationship with the Father. Yes, the Father is able to perform miracles through such a person.

There was only one aspect of His pre-existent state that Jesus retained, and that was His identity as the Son of God.

Origen said:

Can you explain this?

Wrong about…what?

I was responding to specific quotes from the linked article, not davo who merely gave a general thumbs up to it.

The article assumes an “orthodox Christian” view of Christ’s humanity.

If this is about Christ’s human nature, i cannot explain it, except to say it’s mysterious, as many things are.

I’m wondering about this myself because here Origen says

Furthermore,

Logically speaking, if man became totally depraved via the sperm of sinful human fathers, then to be righteous, we must be conceived via the sperm of a righteous man. Yet, Jesus had no biological children.

So, is sin like the flu or does it come via the sperm??? :astonished: :confused:

Well once again you dismiss the reality of Mk 9:41 due to that dirty little thing you can’t manage called CONTEXT… it makes Jesus’ words all too clear, something you continue to muddy.

You clearly MISS Jesus’ comparison from this where HE in vs. 41 differentiates between the “whosoever” and “because YOU belong to Christ” i.e., the “us” of the previous verses — there’s your CLEAR distinction between the two. The right heart attitude of the disciples themselves course was missing (at that time) in not recognising… the potential for the unbeliever of today becoming the believer of tomorrow; Jesus was challenging their own contentious self-righteous spirit.

Further, “in the name of” is similarly understood in the sense of… on the grounds of or… by virtue of them being as per the likes of the prophet or even righteous man, as per Mt 10:41. Not only that but there is further biblical evidence that ‘claiming the name’ was no sure-fire identifier of a “believer”; just look at this here with regards the SAME “in Jesus’ name”…

Well we know what happened to those Judaic exorcists… “Jesus I know, and Paul I know about… but WHO are you?!” And what happened… they got roundly beat up — hope you’re not thinking this was being persecuted “for the faith”? Along a similar vein you might likewise consider the “Lord, Lord didn’t we… in your name” of Mt 7:22.

Also… I think you’ll find the “every knee” of Phil 2 most universalists would contend such is inclusive of unbelievers who then by the nature of events in confession become believers.

LLC said :

H,m go for it LLC :laughing:

I’d distinguish between those who actually are certainly doing something in Jesus’ name & those who are clearly not.

Jesus reference in Mark and Paul’s of Phil.2 are of the former group.

Those of Acts 19 & Mt.7 of the latter category. In Mt.7 they don’t even know if they were doing things in His name. Fail. And in Acts 19 it’s not even in His name alone, but of the one who Paul preaches.

Well, of course, you have to… you’re driven to obfuscate. These texts say NOTHING about those NOT giving. Those that do give to believers according to Jesus (not you) are duly rewarded, period! Ignoring all you like won’t make what is clear go away.

Response to part 3 of 3 from that link:

I’ll be sure to tell that to the monkeys when i repay the behaving ones with a banana. And the misbehaving ones - no banana.

Surely their darkened minds will understand my divine pronouncement merely by an act of their freewill choice.

1 Cor.2:14 The natural man does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God. For they are foolishness to him, and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually discerned.

It seems the apostle Paul may have already met this type of objection about 2000 years ago:

Rom.9:19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?” 20 But who are you, a human being, to talk back to God? “Shall what is formed say to the one who formed it, ‘Why did you make me like this?’ ” 21 Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for special purposes and some for common use?

The human body & universe are certainly “wonderfully made”. That doesn’t deny the depravity of soul through the fall.

God didn’t create Adam depraved. Though He didn’t make him incorruptible either. Neither was he made with a knowledge of good and evil.
God loosed Satan on Adam & Eve & foreknew they would fall. This was all part of His predetermined plan. Why would He do this, you ask?
Discover the answer to why Love Omnipotent lets evil run free & you’ll know.

Adam & Eve were ridiculously far from being created perfect. And soon after things went even further downhill.

With all the billions of free choosers there have been, how is it that only Jesus didn’t choose sin? What are the odds of that?
How many even made it to 5 or 10 years old without choosing sin? If this free will thing existed among billions, shouldn’t there be
some others who resisted sin?

For God has bound everyone over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all. (Rom.11:32)

Rom.8:20 For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it, in hope 21 that the creation itself also will be set free from its slavery to corruption into the freedom of the glory of the children of God.

Punishment is compassionate correction for the good of the offender. Those I love, I rebuke and discipline. (Rev.3:19a)

Without the experience of evil, Adam & Eve were entirely clueless & without appreciation or praise to God re all the good they had.
Neither could they ever, for all eternity, know about things such as mercy, love, sacrifice, etc.

If free will is so important, why would God only give it for the brief span of this life & then take it away for all of eternity?
Will He allow us the free will in heaven to rebel like in the story of the angels who followed Lucifer? Or make us like robots for eternity?
With free will, what if people reject God & suffer hell for millions of years?

The law has nothing to do with free will. It was a ministration of death, of the letter that killeth:

2 Cor.3:6 And He has qualified us as ministers of a new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life.
7 Now if the ministry of death, which was engraved in letters on stone

Jn.6:63 The Spirit gives life; the flesh profits nothing…

Rom.2:29 …circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code. Such a man’s praise does not come from men, but from God.

Acts 15:10 Now then, why do you test God by placing on the necks of the disciples a yoke that neither we nor our fathers have been able to bear? 11 On the contrary, we believe it is through the grace of the Lord Jesus that we are saved…

Dream on.

gotquestions.org/total-depravity.html
the-highway.com/depravity_Boettner.html

Are there any Arminians here:

“The first of the two prominent positions on the doctrine of prevenient grace in classical Arminianism is that until the Gospel, the instrument by which God draws sinners to Himself, is presented to a sinner, the sinner is in complete bondage to sin.”

gotquestions.org/prevenient-grace.html

I’m going to shake the tree - a bit. :smiley:

I’m taken back into my mind, to my days in academia. Suppose I was taking a Christian theology class or a philosophy ethics class. And the professor asked us,

Well, we really can’t discuss this question, until we clear up some issues. Or answer some basic questions:

What is the definition, of a moral life?
How do WE know, whether a person is leading - a moral life or not?
How do WE know, if a person is a Christian - or not? Can someone who is a Jehovah’s Witness, Quaker, Mormon or Christian Scientist be Christian? Why or why not? What is the definition of a Christian?
In the Old Testament, there is a person named Enoch. And there is a verse, which I will quote from Wiki (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Enoch_(ancestor_of_Noah.

. Well, Enoch wasn’t a prophet, as far as scripture mentions. What kind of moral life did he lead - that God “took him” (in other words, he did not see death - from conventional understanding)? And why don’t other Old and New Testament figures (with the exception of Elijah and Christ) - experience this? Or even Christians in our century? For the benefit of everyone, here’s the Calvinist site - Got Questions, talking about Enoch: gotquestions.org/Enoch-in-the-Bible.html
I attend every two weeks, a Buddhist mindfulness meditation group. It’s held at a spiritual center, run by Franciscan nuns. And everyone there, appears to be acting moral. And some might be Christian, some Buddhist, some both and some other. How can I tell, if they are acting moral or not?. There’s an old saying, called the duck test (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Duck_test).

P.S.Here’s an interesting Calvinist CARM, Matt Slick Facebook video:

Interview with an Ex-Mormon Scholar

I rate this video interview very hightly :exclamation: :smiley: And Matt Slick did say something, to this effect - in the interview:

:laughing:

And he does talk, about defining your terms. :smiley: