DaveB asks a question below in another thread which is more pertinent to be dealt with here in this pantelist thread. But first just by way of clarification… like other eschatological views prêterism has its variants — Pantelism being one of them. The main difference between these two fulfilled views is… pantelism views Israel’s prophesied redemption in Christ to be the catalyst for humanity’s reconciliation to God and thus all the blessings to flow because of that.
Again, pantelism takes an inclusive prêteristic position. I use ‘inclusive’ as opposed to ‘universal’ BECAUSE there are many aspects of universalism far removed from the pantelist rationale. Universalism is in fact much closer to its nemesis of Infernalism, or if one prefers… Particularism, as in both these positions believe in the EXACT same postmortem experience and nature of “hell” for any ascribed as destined there — the ONLY real difference being the degree of the suffering endured therein, i.e., limited or unlimited.
As a pantelist the 1st resurrection was germane to the firstfruit saints of the AD30-70 NT era, culminating in the 2nd or general resurrection of AD70, being inclusive of all Israel prior to that; and then in consequence the rest of departed humanity. The only “physical resurrection” per sé that counted was Jesus’ which assured the redemption and reconciliation of all — the restoration of man.
Pantelism doesn’t so much go for this so-called physical/spiritual divide when it comes to ‘resurrection’ (which biblically speaking was actually something promised to Israel), understanding such to be speaking of COVENANT realities and thus specifically and primarily referring to Israel’s ‘covenant renewal’.
Pantelism sees this 1st resurrection ALREADY in operation here…
This death to life that NOW IS was the beginnings of Israel’s covenant renewal, i.e., resurrection, starting in Jesus’ ministry then and there — the first resurrection.
Then what followed in the AD70 Parousia was the general or 2nd resurrection, as per…
The “resurrection of the dead” was two-fold and did not necessitate physical death. Firstly… the resurrection of Jn 5:25 was of the firstfruits harvest occurring in that generation — thus their “coming to life” was a coming up out from among the dead, that is… what constituted the body of old covenant Israel (Moses), of which Jesus “would be the first to rise from the dead” as per Acts 26:23. Pantelism understands resurrection here described as covenantal in focus and nature as Jesus was not in fact the first to rise from the dead — if by resurrection is meant the attaining of a new or revived fleshly-physical abode or mode of existence, for Scripture is replete with this phenomenon already… 1Kgs 17:17-23; 2Kgs 4:17-37; 2Kgs 13:21; Mt 27:52-53; Lk 7:11-17; Lk 8:40-42, 49-55; Jn 11:38-44, so for Paul, this cannot have been the essence of what “resurrection” was, in view here.
Thus the resurrection of John 5 was not a “spiritual” resurrection followed then by a “bodily” resurrection, no. Rather, it was the “firstfruits” resurrection (1st) being followed by a “whole harvest” resurrection (2nd). Resurrection was all about COVENANT change — or as Paul said… “we shall all be changed” — the AD70 DoJ was the final death knell of that old covenant world.
The “life” Jn 5:29 is the affirmative comparison to its negative opposite “condemnation” aka judgment. Those of “faith” would be spared the dire consequence of AD70 — calling on the name of the Lord they would be saved (Rom 10:13) and not be put to shame (Rom 10:11) such as condemnation would bring, hence…
Continuing to walk according to the passing old covenant would lead to “death” — quite literally as it turned out for some in the DoJ; yet also metaphorically speaking comparatively… walking according to the burgeoning new covenant was the pathway of “life” into the coming new age “wherein righteousness dwells” 2Pet 3:13.