very good. it echoes the thoughts i had growing up that God’s wrath in the OT was ALWAYS remedial. it always corrected, and there was most times a promised reconciliation at the end (there are a couple examples where there isn’t, i think Edom is one). why would the NT contradict this and make the end hopeless if it was indeed to be a “better covenant”?
now, it seems so obvious i wonder why i missed it.
it seems we want to exagerate an indefinite period to become eternal, and we want to underestimate the word “all”…and why? so we can teach that God would do something in Scripture we never see Him doing?